The Nugget:
Mark 10:18 And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God.
The Discussion:
PixelMistakePicasso You state:
“In the New Testament, Jesus frequently speaks about His relationship with God in ways that are open to interpretation. Key verses often cited where Jesus does not directly claim divinity include:
– Mark 10:18: “Why do you call me good? No one is good except God alone.” “
I have given a better understanding of Mark 10:18 in my note for this verse in The New Treasury of Scripture Knowledge (NTSK):
none good but one. God the Father possesses the attribute of essential goodness (+*Mat 28:19 note), as does God the Son (Joh 10:11), and God the Holy Spirit (Psa 143:10). By this statement Jesus did not deny his own goodness, but claimed it was a proof of his deity.
You state:
“- John 14:28: “You heard me say, ‘I am going away and I am coming back to you.’ If you loved me, you would be glad that I am going to the Father, for the Father is greater than I.” This statement suggests a hierarchy where Jesus positions Himself as subordinate to the Father.”
I have given a better interpretation that is more fully in accord with the full testimony of the Bible itself in my NTSK notes and cross references for John 14:28,
rejoice. Inasmuch as he should then be glorified, and his humiliation and sufferings should cease (De Burgh, p. 276). Joh 16:22; Joh 17:13; Joh 20:13, Luk 24:52, Heb 12:2.
greater than. The Lord was not inferior as to His essential being (see Joh 14:9; Joh 14:11; Joh 10:30), but as to His office, as sent by the Father (see 1Co 15:27, Php 2:9, 10, 11) [CB]. *Joh 14:12, **Joh 5:19; +*Joh 6:38 note. Gen 41:40 with Gen 44:18, Mat 24:36, +**Mar 13:32, *1Co 11:3; +**1Co 15:28, T963x: *Joh 5:19; Joh 8:42; Joh 13:16, Luk 22:41, 42, **+1Co 15:28 (T964x). Php 2:9, Heb 2:7.
You state:
“The original texts of the New Testament were written in Koine Greek, and nuances in translation can affect the interpretation of key passages. For example:
– The use of “Son of Man” (used 81 times in the Gospels) can be a reference to the prophetic figure in Daniel 7:13-14, traditionally understood as divine, yet linguistically it also simply means “human.”
It is better to go to the Scripture itself to learn the meaning and use of the divine titles of our Lord Jesus Christ. The notes and cross references I have placed in the NTSK will assist you as you properly search the Scriptures to learn the truth:
Matthew 16:27
the Son of man. FS144A3, +Gen 11:5, The title “Son of man” designates Christ’s human nature, as the title “Son of God” denotes his divine nature (Act 8:37 note). The use of “Son of man” here in reference to his second coming in glory shows unmistakably that this coming is personal, physical, and visible. Peters notes that this title serves particularly to identify Jesus Christ as the Messiah in fulfillment of the Davidic Covenant, noting “it is the peculiar, distinctive, predicted name of the Messiah given to Him in virtue of His covenanted relationship to the Kingdom” (Theocratic Kingdom, vol. 1, p. 566). Mat 16:13, +*Mat 8:20; +*Mat 19:28; +*Mat 24:30; *Mat 25:31-34; *Mat 25:46; *Mat 26:64, **+Psa 80:17, +**Dan 7:13, Mar 1:2 note. *Mar 8:38; *Mar 13:26; *Mar 14:62, *Luk 9:26; Luk 21:27; Luk 22:69, Joh 1:51 note. Joh 3:13 note. *Joh 5:27; Joh 13:31, +*Act 1:11; *Act 7:56; Act 8:37, 1Th 1:10, 2Th 1:10, **1Jn 4:2 note. **2Jn 1:7 note. +*Rev 1:7.